Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
12.06.2025 06:47
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Real TikTokers are pretending to be Veo 3 AI creations for fun, attention - Ars Technica
There's no rule.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
You'll usually find your answer there.
Since the Brits can't steer their oil tanker, what makes them think they can take on Russia?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.